ILLMAS Posted March 15, 2011 Report Posted March 15, 2011 New TP came to see me, in 2007 he bought two personal residence in two different states, he lost his job and eventually lost both houses and also filed for bankruptcy and included both homes. Fast forward to 2010, he recieved a 1099-A for one of the homes he let go in 2008, and the 1099-A is for 2010 which I am including in 2010 tax return under form 982. I asked him about the other property and he said he never recieved a 1099-A or heard anything from the bank, well I recommend to him to let me go ahead and request a transcript of his return from 2007 to 2009 and see if indeed the bank had issued one to him for the second home. I recieved the transcripts today and I do see he did recieve one in 2009 and he didn't report it on his tax return, if I were to amend his tax return I would only add form 982 which would make no difference to his income tax return, so I wanted to know if 2009 should be amended just to include form 982 or just leave it as it is? Your thoughts? Quote
michaelmars Posted March 15, 2011 Report Posted March 15, 2011 i think i would amend-after 4/15 of course Quote
Yardley CPA Posted March 15, 2011 Report Posted March 15, 2011 I agree. I think ultimately I would amend this return. Quote
ILLMAS Posted March 15, 2011 Author Report Posted March 15, 2011 I spoke with the client and I am going to be amending the return but it will be in May or June. Quote
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