Kea Posted November 7, 2007 Report Posted November 7, 2007 Client called today to say he sold land to a friend for $113K (FMV) with $25K down and $500 / month until balance paid. There is no interest included in the agreement. Since there is no interest it isn't an installment sale. I think this means I show the whole $113K as the selling price, and it all gets included in the year sold (2007). Is that right? My client bought the land 3 years ago with plans to build a house on it. He cleared the land and installed utilities but never built the house. I know I can include the utilities in the cost basis, but can I count clearing the land? The buyer of the land wants to build a house, so I would think that clearing the land would count as an improvement. Thanks. Quote
Julie Posted November 7, 2007 Report Posted November 7, 2007 I think you need to do some research on "imputed interest." I don't remember all the details, but some of the purchase price will be construed as interest income. Quote
Jake Posted November 7, 2007 Report Posted November 7, 2007 Julie is right. You should still report this as an installment sale. However, part of each payment needs to be allocated to interest. What I typically do when a client is recieving income from an installment sale with unstated or inadequate interest is to prepare an amortization schedule using the applicable federal rate (AFR) for the month of the contract. (The AFR can be found on the IRS website) Report the interest component on sch B and the rest on sch D. Quote
Kea Posted November 7, 2007 Author Report Posted November 7, 2007 Thanks Julie and Jake. I like that better than reporting the whole gain in '07. Quote
kcjenkins Posted November 7, 2007 Report Posted November 7, 2007 And yes, you can include the cost of the clearing in his basis. Quote
TAXBILLY Posted November 8, 2007 Report Posted November 8, 2007 AFR Info from IRS: http://www.irs.gov/taxpros/lists/0,,id=98042,00.html taxbilly Quote
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