schirallicpa Posted June 12, 2023 Report Posted June 12, 2023 Client owns a rental property and refinanced a mortgage. The client had not paid 2021 or 2022 real estate taxes and those taxes were included in the closing costs. Since he already owns the property, I think these should be expensed, not capitalized and certainly not part of the amortizable closing costs. However, the client wants to show a profitable tax return. So I'm kinda thinking about this too much.  Quote
Lee B Posted June 12, 2023 Report Posted June 12, 2023 If it was my client I would expense the property taxes in the tax year in which the property taxes were paid via the mortgage closing. One year clients complain that their taxes are too high, the next year they want to show more income. 7 Quote
Gail in Virginia Posted June 12, 2023 Report Posted June 12, 2023 1 hour ago, cbslee said:  One year clients complain that their taxes are too high, the next year they want to show more income. I think it is the same year - they want to show that they made millions and yet they want to pay -0- in income tax. They are convinced that is what rich people do and if we were just "good" enough at our jobs to find them those same loopholes, they could make money without paying taxes.  4 2 Quote
mcb39 Posted June 12, 2023 Report Posted June 12, 2023 It definitely is expensed in the year that it is paid. There is even a line for it on the Schedule E. 4 Quote
Abby Normal Posted June 13, 2023 Report Posted June 13, 2023 As I'm fond of saying, we account for what actually happened, not what someone hoped had happened. There is zero basis for capitalizing past due real estate taxes in this situation. 5 Quote
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