Corduroy Frog Posted May 11, 2021 Report Posted May 11, 2021 The IRS offers to do this, but most clients want to have some idear what is going to happen, during their appointment before insisting on it. The appropriate items of revenue and expense are allocated. Rates in use, before proration, are married filing separately. Which, if any, of the following are true? In absence of clear identification, items of expense are allocated in proportion to respective incomes. Even though using married filing separately, Large items such as EIC can be allocated even though MFS does not support EIC. Thanks in advance. Quote
Lion EA Posted May 11, 2021 Report Posted May 11, 2021 If you're using MFS, why do you need the innocent spouse form? Quote
Corduroy Frog Posted May 11, 2021 Author Report Posted May 11, 2021 Hi Lion - we are filing MFJ, but the IRS claims the allocation will be prorated downward after a quasi-MFS separation. Quote
Lion EA Posted May 11, 2021 Report Posted May 11, 2021 Yes, the IRS allocates so the innocent spouse can receive her/his ratio of the refund. Quote
kathyc2 Posted May 11, 2021 Report Posted May 11, 2021 Are you actually filing innocent spouse as opposed to injured spouse? For injured spouse the tax is calculated MFJ. 8379 is then completed so the that the injured spouse (the one without past debts that refund would be held to pay) still gets the refund they personally would have been entitled to. 1 Quote
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