lydia33 Posted March 10, 2008 Report Posted March 10, 2008 Grandchild inherited grandmothers house. The estate had an appraisal of the property. It appraised for $135,000.00 3-07. Grandchild sells house during the year at $100,000. because they just did not want to deal with the piece of property. Do they really have a $35000. loss? Quote
michaelmars Posted March 10, 2008 Report Posted March 10, 2008 YUP 100M PLUS CLOSING COST - ALL LONG TERM Quote
indyscott Posted March 10, 2008 Report Posted March 10, 2008 I think they do have a Capital loss. They acquired the property at the date of death (or alternate valuation date) at it's FMV, ie the appraised value. Their proceeds from disposal of the property are less than their basis, that's a Captial loss. Quote
lydia33 Posted March 10, 2008 Author Report Posted March 10, 2008 That is the way I see it also. I cannot find anything about it in the US Master tax guide. Quote
Linda Mathey Posted March 10, 2008 Report Posted March 10, 2008 Did they sell to a related party? Quote
Maura Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 They have a loss. But it might not be a deductible loss. 2nd Circuit Court and the IRS says the home retains the same characteristics as in the hands of the decedent. IE: it is personal and nondeductible. Quote
jainen Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 >> 2nd Circuit Court and the IRS<< If'n y'all don' mind, I'd a be intrested in th't pertikerler citation. My doubts center around the FMV. The estate had it appraised for its own purposes, which apparently did not include sale on the open market. Because the appraisal was vastly higher than actual market conditions, I wouldn't accept it for determining gain or loss unless a substantial amount of time passed or some specific market force operated to alter the value so drastically. And no Realtor in the country would go for that line about "they just did not want to deal with the piece of property." The FMV value is whatever the market will bear. Property values are dropping, but not 35% in one summer. Quote
BulldogTom Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 Property values are dropping, but not 35% in one summer. OH yeah? Mabey not over on that beautiful coast where you are, but when you are in between 2 of the top five forclosure cities in the nation (Stockton & Sacramento), it can happen in a hurry. I have lost 40% of the value of my home, most of it in the last 5 months. If I had to sell today, I probably could not get even that much. Facts and circumstances. Location, Location, Location. It may be that the price drop is valid, maybe not. Your word of caution is well taken, but don't jump to conclusions. Quote
lydia33 Posted March 11, 2008 Author Report Posted March 11, 2008 It was not a related party. They just did not want to fool with the piece of property and took a below value for it so they would not have to keep it up. That is the way I understand the situation. This is among several things that client inherited from the estate. Quote
mcb39 Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 It was not a related party. They just did not want to fool with the piece of property and took a below value for it so they would not have to keep it up. That is the way I understand the situation. This is among several things that client inherited from the estate. Quickfinders Page 7-16 Inherited Houses....."Loss from the sale of an inherited house is generally a capital loss." However, I would want to see some strong evidence as to the FMV of the house at the time of death and prior to the sale. I have handled these in the past, but never with this large a loss. However, I concede that the housing market is certainly erratic and is probably more so in some areas of the country than others. Just get as much hard facts together as you can to establish FMV and follow your conscience. Quote
RoyDaleOne Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 "The estate had an appraisal of the property" An appraisal for the estate is available. Ours is not to reason why ours is to tax or die. Quote
OldJack Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 I would take it as a capital loss if the appraisal was a proper independent appraisal for the purpose of taxes. Quote
jainen Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 >>I have handled these in the past, but never with this large a loss<< No, indeed. Until recently we used to argue that the appraisal couldn't be right because the house sold for so much MORE. Quote
mcb39 Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 >>I have handled these in the past, but never with this large a loss<< No, indeed. Until recently we used to argue that the appraisal couldn't be right because the house sold for so much MORE. Not always the case. I have had several instances where the children spend a lot of money renovating or "fixing up" the house for sale and are not able to recover their expenses on the sale. Then, add closing costs and realtors fees to the mix and they end up with a loss........... Quote
jainen Posted March 11, 2008 Report Posted March 11, 2008 >>add closing costs and realtors fees to the mix and they end up with a loss<< Sure, I understand that. But the original post wasn't talking about expenses. That's extra. In fact, even a drop in value isn't really the issue. We are being asked to believe that the owner preferred not to get a fair price, but now wants a tax break because he could have sold it for more than he did. Quote
Maura Posted March 12, 2008 Report Posted March 12, 2008 >> 2nd Circuit Court and the IRS<< If'n y'all don' mind, I'd a be intrested in th't pertikerler citation. My doubts center around the FMV. The estate had it appraised for its own purposes, which apparently did not include sale on the open market. Because the appraisal was vastly higher than actual market conditions, I wouldn't accept it for determining gain or loss unless a substantial amount of time passed or some specific market force operated to alter the value so drastically. And no Realtor in the country would go for that line about "they just did not want to deal with the piece of property." The FMV value is whatever the market will bear. Property values are dropping, but not 35% in one summer. You asked... http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-wd/1998-012.pdf Hope the link works. Quote
OldJack Posted March 12, 2008 Report Posted March 12, 2008 but now wants a tax break because he could have sold it for more than he did. So what? He sold it and that is the sale price as long as it is not to a related party. Where is the cite that says a taxpayer can't sell his property for whatever he wants to sell it for. Quote
kcjenkins Posted March 12, 2008 Report Posted March 12, 2008 Maura, that's an interesting cite, thank you for posting it. But, it is discussing how the estate should handle it, which is significantly different than the rules for the heir. Once the heir has the property distributed to him or her, they hold it either as personal, if they use it personally, rental, if they rent it, or investment property, if they do neither of the other two. As investment property, it would be eligible to create a capital gain or loss. Quote
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.