jklcpa Posted February 22, 2008 Report Posted February 22, 2008 Client traded 04 Jeep deprec'd under luxury rules (& < 6000 lbs) for 08 Jeep >6000 lbs. Both vehicles ~ 75% business usage. I'm using Creative Solutions/Tompson depreciation program & it looks like its working properly for the basis new auto, splitting into its components. New basis is old Jeep as if deprec'd at 100% + cash paid. Under new rules, my basis in the new Jeep is ~ $5,600 lower than using old rules. This difference is the deprec not allowed over the yrs due to bus % <100%. Now I'm doubting myself because my problem is that my fixed asset schedule doesn't tie-in to books. The difference is that same ~ $5,600. (The cash pd was posted to asset acct, and aje to cr asset & dr accum deprec for deprec actually taken on old Jeep). What am I doing wrong??? I've spent way too much time on this & I just can't rationalize this. 2nd question - looks like I need Form 8824 for this transaction. Is that correct? It looks like I'd be better off electing out of this method, using the old method and having a higher basis for the new Jeep. Even with the bus use % applied, deprec basis would still exceed $25K and I could use up to that as sec 179 since it's over 6K lbs & is then an SUV. I hope someone can straighten me out. I just want to scream or put my fist through the screen right now!!!!!! Quote
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