David Posted April 24, 2015 Report Posted April 24, 2015 New client has a 3 year gap where no depreciation was taken on their rental property. In the past I have filed Form 3115 to get automatic approval to change from an impermissable to a permissable method of accounting and take all depreciation that should have been taken. However, I have always done this when the TP sold their rental property.My question is whether I can take all of the depreciation adjustment in the current year as a 481(a) adjustment when the TP is still renting the property.I think it is OK but want to make sure.Thanks. 1 Quote
Catherine Posted April 24, 2015 Report Posted April 24, 2015 I have a day care lady whose former preparer did not take any depreciation on her house/place of business. My plan is to put it all on 3115 this year as a section 481(a) adjustment. She is still in business. Don't know if that helps answer your question - but you'll at least know you have company! Quote
Lion EA Posted April 24, 2015 Report Posted April 24, 2015 Yes, do it now. (Don't the regs say something along the lines of When the error/omission is discovered?) In fact, if you discover any other changes, now is the one year you can do almost anything on one 3115 without a user's fee due to the "simplification" of the new repair vs. capitalization regs. 3 Quote
joanmcq Posted April 26, 2015 Report Posted April 26, 2015 Yes, I do it whenever I find an error. Sometimes it's when it's sold, like one in my extension pile, and some when I get a new client. Quote
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