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Posted

A client called me today wanting to take the house that they purchased for their daughters and boyfriends to live in as a loss.  Only the boys pay any rent and it's not FMV. I said that they have to report the rent and can not take a loss as it's considered personal usage. If the rent is not FMV, the whole house is considered personal, correct? I just want to make sure that I'm right before I call her back. I told her that I was 95% sure that she could not take a loss.

 

Thanks!

 

Posted

renting below fmv to family or friends can be acceptable if there is the expectation that the property will be cared for in a way that strangers will not.

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