TAXMAN Posted February 25, 2014 Report Posted February 25, 2014 What I have is a purchase in 1990 1 contract stating house with 3 acres X$ and 50 acres @ X$ for a total of X$. 1 loan for whole thing.TP farmed the 50 acres since 1990 always had a loss. Now in 2013 tp sells the 50 acres to joe and sells in 2014 the house and 3 acres to mary. TP could not get 1 contract for whole. I believe that I have 2 separate sales. Farm land with no exclusion and house with exclusion. I do not think I can make this into 1 sale with full exclusion against everything. Correct me if my thinking is bad. Many thanks. Quote
TAXMAN Posted February 25, 2014 Author Report Posted February 25, 2014 Thats the way I saw it. TP read somewhere? he could add land to house and sale as long as it was within 2 years of each other. Don't you just love it when they know more than you. 1 Quote
Lion EA Posted February 25, 2014 Report Posted February 25, 2014 That's true for personal use land. But, his land is a business and was not used as part of his house landscaping. Quote
RitaB Posted February 25, 2014 Report Posted February 25, 2014 Oh, they like to have their cake and eat it, too. I just had a lady upset about owing $1007 on the sale of a rental property: “Well, I don’t know if it was worth it to rent it out.” Me: What did you make in rent over the years? Ladyl: $31,000. Oh, OOOOOHHHH. (Little grin.) Quote
kcjenkins Posted February 25, 2014 Report Posted February 25, 2014 Remind him those 'farm losses' offset 'ordinary income' and what he has now is a 'capital gain taxed at a lower rate. And if that's not enough, tell him "it is what it is, you and I don't get to write the tax law, we just have to live with it." Putting it that way reminds him you and he are on the same side, while still letting him know you will do it right or not at all, without actually having to say that. 1 Quote
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