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TP 80 yrs old, no earned income gets RMD from reg IRA. Bank tells him to put it back into a Roth IRA and he does. Pays tax on the RMD. I thought you had to have earned income to even do a Roth. I believe he can convert the reg IRA as long as he pays the TAX but not the RMD amount. Am I missguided. BTW I saw the Bank statement and it plainly states Roth contribution. Opinions please.

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