Randall Posted February 25, 2012 Report Posted February 25, 2012 Client received the $7500 credit in 2008. Paid $500 back in 2010. Filed bankruptcy in 2011, bank took back home. Am I correct in using balance of unpaid loan as 'selling price' and calculating gain or loss on 5405? Or is there a special exception for bankruptcy that would eliminate pay back of credit? I'm still waiting on some info from client and I'm thinking there will be a loss eliminating the pay back anyway. But I wanted to throw the topic out for response. Quote
ILLMAS Posted February 26, 2012 Report Posted February 26, 2012 Check this out: http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/article/0,,id=206292,00.html MAS Quote
Randall Posted February 26, 2012 Author Report Posted February 26, 2012 Thanks. That's what I was seeing too. I'm waiting for more info on the purchase amounts (wasn't my client in 2008, year of purchase). I think basis will be $7000 (amount of unpaid credit) over 'selling price'. Quote
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